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DAY 4 (19-09-23)

Q1. Which of the following statement regarding Cheetah reintroduction is incorrect:

     (a) 20 radio-collared Cheetahs were translocated from Namibia and South Africa to Kuno National Park.

     (b) The action plan for introduction of Cheetah was released by Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change in 

            January 2022     

     (c) Status of African Cheetah is critically endangered under IUCN red list.

     (d) The project is implemented by National Tiger Conservation Authority.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement (a) is correct: In total, 20 adult African cheetahs have been imported so far. The first batch of eight cheetahs from Namibia arrived on September 17, 2022 and another batch of 12 cheetahs from South Africa arrived on February 18, 2023.

Statement (b) is correct: Such a plan was first proposed in 2009. The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change unveiled the action plan for the reintroduction of cheetahs in January 2022 at the 19th meeting of National tiger Conservation Authority.

Statement (c) is incorrect: Status of African Cheetah is vulnerable under IUCN red list.Status of Asiatic Cheetah is critically endangered under IUCN red list.

Statement (d) is correct: The NTCA is partnering with the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department, the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), and cheetah specialists from Namibia and South Africa to execute the project.

 

Q2. Consider the following statements:

  1. Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by universal suffrage.
  2. Members of all religions were given representation in the Constituent Assembly.

Select the correct statement(s) using the code given below:

     (a) 1 only

     (b) only

     (c) Both 1 and 2

     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Although, the members of the Assembly were not elected by universal suffrage, there was a serious attempt to make the Assembly a representative body. Members of all religions were given representation under the scheme described above; in addition, the Assembly had twenty-eight members from the Scheduled Castes.

Statement 2 is correct: In terms of political parties, the Congress dominated the Assembly occupying as many as eighty-two per cent of the seats in the Assembly after the Partition. The Congress itself was such a diverse party that it managed to accommodate almost all shades of opinion within it.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements:

  1. Budget is prepared by Department of Economic Affairs.
  2. Article 113 of the Indian Constitution deals with annual financial statement.
  3. New domestic companies engaged in manufacturing have an option to pay tax at 5% if they start manufacturing by March 31, 2023.

Select the correct statement(s) using the code given below:

     (a) 1 only

     (b) 1 and 2 only

     (c) 2 and 3 only

     (d) All of the Above

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Union Budget is prepared by the Ministry of Finance in consultation with Niti Aayog and other concerned ministries. Also, the Budget division of the department of economic affairs (DEA) in the finance ministry is the nodal body responsible for preparing the Budget.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 112 of the Indian Constitution deals with annual financial statement and not article 113.

Statement 3 is incorrect:  New domestic companies engaged in manufacturing have an option to pay tax at 15% (without claiming any deductions) if they start manufacturing by March 31, 2023. It is not 5%.

 

Q4. With reference to International Labour Organization (ILO) consider the following statements:

  1. India is one of the founding members of ILO.
  2. The standards established by the International Labour Organization (ILO) are not legally binding in character.
  3. This is a non-profit, independent organization dedicated in offering financial aid and employment opportunities to the developing nations.

Select the correct statement(s) using the code given below:

     (a) 1 and 2

     (b) 2 and 3

     (c) 1 and 3

     (d) All of the above

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India is a founder member of the International Labour Organization, which came into existence in 1919. At present the ILO has 187 Members.

Statement 2 is correct: Established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations. It became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland

Statement 3 is incorrect:  ILO is a specialized United Nations agency and by setting international labour standards, its mandate is to advance social and economic justice.

 

Q5. Which of the following statements regarding the political classification of the territory of India is not correct?

     (a) A state’s legislature consists of a Governor and a unicameral or a bicameral legislature.

     (b) In 1950, the Constitution of India described territories of India under four heads namely part A, B, C, and D.

     (c) ‘Union Territories with legislature’ have the Chief Minister as their executive head while the ‘Union Territories without 

          legislature’ have the President as their executive head.    

     (d) ‘Union territories without legislature’ do not have representation in the Rajya Sabha.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement (a) is correct: For every state, there is a legislature, which consists of a Governor and either one (legislative assembly) or two houses (legislative assembly, the lower house and legislative council, the upper house). The states of Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh have bicameral legislatures, with the remaining states having a unicameral one.

Statement (b) is correct: In 1950, the Constitution contained a four-fold classification of the states and territories of the Indian Union–Part A, Part B, and Part C states and Part D territories. In all, they numbered 29. Part A states comprised nine erstwhile governor’s provinces of British India. Part B states consisted of nine erstwhile princely states with legislatures. Part C states consisted of erstwhile chief commissioner’s provinces of British India and some of the erstwhile princely states. These Part C states (in all 10 in number) were centrally administered. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands were kept as the solitary Part D territories.

Statement (c) is incorrect: For both types of UTs, with or without a legislature have the President of India as their executive head except UT of Chandigarh which has the Governor of State of Punjab has been functioning as its Administrator.

Statement (d) is correct: Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha except the three UTs with legislatures.